Originally posted by BroMikey
View Post
He says there is a generator running. Let's say using 100 watts input and putting out 30 watts to a load. That generator is running at 30% efficiency. Now the load is increased by 5 watts to 35 watts total output and the input doesn't change; it remains at 100 watts. So does one get that new 5 watts for free? You might say that. Or look at it as 35 watts out using 100 watts input. That's 35% efficiency. So as a proportion of generator operation, each 5 watts of output costs 14.3 watts of input power. You have an argument that the extra 5 watts is free, but by no means is the generator over-unity.
Example:
Use the video of the fellow debunking Thane. His data from my earlier post (2 pages back, post #636).
Screenshot_20200624-174429.png
With the bifilar coil it uses 437 watts input for 0 watts output. He adds a 10 watt load and the input power goes to 280 watts. Does he get those 10 watts for free? Of course not. He pays 280 watts as input power to get 10 watts output power. Yep, 3.6% efficiency.
So when this poster says to explain how his generator can produce an additional 5 watt load with no increase input power, I offer that his machine was operating at such a low efficiency to start with that the change in load caused a increase in efficiency which offset the increased load. I venture to say his generator was not putting out more total power than what it used as input power. And that it never will even if he further increased load. He fooling himself thinking it would.
bi
Comment