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The issue is in separating techniques and methods from cause and effect. There is so much emphasis placed on Tesla's methods, but very little understanding about where the source of excess energy is. Resonance is a method, but I honestly don't think it is a cause by itself. If the (or a) source of excess energy were found to be sympathetic resonance, than resonance would be a method for accessing it, but the source is still not the resonance by itself, but some underlying aetheric tendency for things to rattle together.
One recurrent theme that shows up often is dual frequencies, but I see very little direct discussion of the possible role of frequency mixing as a source of excess energy. When you have two distinct frequencies in two different coils, one of which is resonant, you have the potential for true mixing...not summing...of the two frequencies. The result is (an MJN was just alluding to) the presence of other frequencies other than those originally supplied. The basis for mixing, instead of straight summing, is that the resonant coil will have both a magnetic influence and an electric influence on the adjoining coil. I think it is possible that the presence of both influences can result in a true modulation of one of the signals, and that modulation will in turn produce new frequencies.
Modulation may have huge significance. When you take a large resonant signal and modulate it, you shift a portion of that energy through the time domain back into the frequency domain...but at a different frequency. How does Lenz feel about counteracting magnetic energy that has been frequency shifted? If you have built a resonant energy that is 100 times what you started with, the current and magnetic energy are real...because the IR losses are real. Of course then Dr. Lenz shows up to spoil the party when we attempt to use that. But what happens when we take a considerable amount of that resonant energy and modulate it, shifting some of it to another frequency. Does loading that shifted energy translate back through the time domain, back to the original resonant source? If not, the resonant energy might remain untouched, and the frequency shifted energy might be real.
For T-1000, the 50Hz may be modulating the 382Khz, or vice versa, and the end result may be a broad range of harmonics not originally provided. Depending on the actual arrangement of the output bifilar, it could selectively be tapping some of the generated harmonics without touching the originating resonance. It wasn't clear to me what the real role of the bifilar was, but if it is in a magnetic canceling mode, then at the length they described it would act as a 1/4 wave resonator in the low Mhz...leaving the 382Khz untouched. One of the schematics didn't show it canceling, but one built coil had both wire ends coming from one end of the coil...which suggests canceling.
As I have mentioned on various forums, I am far more interested in understanding the behavior than in getting a schematic. Until we understand the 'why', we are going to do replication attempt after attempt without getting a good result. It's discouraging and tends to result in discredit to the original device.
One recurrent theme that shows up often is dual frequencies, but I see very little direct discussion of the possible role of frequency mixing as a source of excess energy. When you have two distinct frequencies in two different coils, one of which is resonant, you have the potential for true mixing...not summing...of the two frequencies. The result is (an MJN was just alluding to) the presence of other frequencies other than those originally supplied. The basis for mixing, instead of straight summing, is that the resonant coil will have both a magnetic influence and an electric influence on the adjoining coil. I think it is possible that the presence of both influences can result in a true modulation of one of the signals, and that modulation will in turn produce new frequencies.
Modulation may have huge significance. When you take a large resonant signal and modulate it, you shift a portion of that energy through the time domain back into the frequency domain...but at a different frequency. How does Lenz feel about counteracting magnetic energy that has been frequency shifted? If you have built a resonant energy that is 100 times what you started with, the current and magnetic energy are real...because the IR losses are real. Of course then Dr. Lenz shows up to spoil the party when we attempt to use that. But what happens when we take a considerable amount of that resonant energy and modulate it, shifting some of it to another frequency. Does loading that shifted energy translate back through the time domain, back to the original resonant source? If not, the resonant energy might remain untouched, and the frequency shifted energy might be real.
For T-1000, the 50Hz may be modulating the 382Khz, or vice versa, and the end result may be a broad range of harmonics not originally provided. Depending on the actual arrangement of the output bifilar, it could selectively be tapping some of the generated harmonics without touching the originating resonance. It wasn't clear to me what the real role of the bifilar was, but if it is in a magnetic canceling mode, then at the length they described it would act as a 1/4 wave resonator in the low Mhz...leaving the 382Khz untouched. One of the schematics didn't show it canceling, but one built coil had both wire ends coming from one end of the coil...which suggests canceling.
As I have mentioned on various forums, I am far more interested in understanding the behavior than in getting a schematic. Until we understand the 'why', we are going to do replication attempt after attempt without getting a good result. It's discouraging and tends to result in discredit to the original device.
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