Originally posted by T-rex
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Now in a fluid, you cannot have transverse waves. These can only occur at the boundary between two media with different densities. That is what you have at the surface of an antenna, a conductor. And thus you can have real transverse waves in a certain area around your antenna: the near field.
However, you cannot have "far field" real transverse or "Herzian" waves, because the aether is a fluid. And therefore, something else must enter the picture and that is the element of rotation. And that is what we call the magnetic field. With rotation you can have vortexes, which form contracting, rotating tubes of force. Hence the fibrous nature of magnetic lines of force. These ARE tiny vortexes in the ether, and I believe lightning is also such a vortex in the aether as is the "electron" when it is playing it's role of "binding" atom nuclei in a molecule or crystal structure.
La-Mare's biggest error is the insistance upon a transverse component, that physics poison from his university training. The L.M.D. is NOT, NOT, NOT, the T.E. or T.M. The L.M.D. wave has both Phi & Psi in the direction of propogation, there is NO transverse component.
There is ONLY one longitudinal dielectric wave that propagates at a speed of pi/2 times c. That one has NO transverse component and NO magnetic component. And thus that one is NOT the L.M.D. wave, but the L.D. wave. NO M, no magnetic!!!
And because Tesla's L.D. waves have no transverse component, the bottomline of transmitting L.D. waves is that you need to suppress any transverse waves with a magnetic component on your coil. Otherwise, you get some kind of electro-magnetic wave and NOT Tesla's L.D. wave.
So, you have to get rid of the rotating magnetic component, because that is what gives rise to TEM waves in the far field. Meyl's picture gives a pretty good idea of how the transverse wave on the surface of your conductor, the near field, gives rise to vortexes in the far field, the TEM wave:
Originally posted by lamare
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The L.M.D. wave has both Phi & Psi in the direction of propogation, there is NO transverse component.
Tuks DrippingPedia : Stowe Foundation Unification Physics
In classic kinetic theory, longitudinal (simple compression) wave speed is defined as:
c_l = sqrt(3q / rho) {eq. 4a}
where rho is the density of the medium and q is systemic pressure.
Transverse waves in an elastic medium are defined as:
c_t = sqrt(q / rho) {eq. 4b}
Note: The author recognizes that under classical kinetic theory, transverse waves are not carried in fluids. However, Lord Kelvin demonstrated (ref. 5 ,Volume 1, page 296), that only transverse waves would exist in a fluid predominantly consisting of vortex rings, a state which he called a vortex sponge. The reason for this, is due to the gyroscopic action of the fluid circulation around the large and small axis of the vortices.
c_l = sqrt(3q / rho) {eq. 4a}
where rho is the density of the medium and q is systemic pressure.
Transverse waves in an elastic medium are defined as:
c_t = sqrt(q / rho) {eq. 4b}
Note: The author recognizes that under classical kinetic theory, transverse waves are not carried in fluids. However, Lord Kelvin demonstrated (ref. 5 ,Volume 1, page 296), that only transverse waves would exist in a fluid predominantly consisting of vortex rings, a state which he called a vortex sponge. The reason for this, is due to the gyroscopic action of the fluid circulation around the large and small axis of the vortices.
However, longitudinal waves such as sound waves as well as the L.D. do NOT have this rotational component. And therefore the magnetic induction Phi is ZERO with the longitudinal dielectric wave, which should thus not be labeled L.M.D.
So, I'll try to use the name "dielectric" from now on, but I do expect you to use L.D. from now on in return.
1) Are we sure mutual inductance M is rotational. We know nothing about M, NOTHING.
2) The La-Mare/Thompson Longitudinal Dielectric force cannot be a wave if only one energy exists.
3) Here is the very critical question, does a displacement current in a dielectric really produce a magnetic field? I do not believe it does.
3) Here is the very critical question, does a displacement current in a dielectric really produce a magnetic field? I do not believe it does.
And the relation between the dielectric displacement current and magnetic induction is that magnetic induction IS a dielectric displacement current flowing in a closed loop...
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